NEETS MODULE 1 CHAPTER 1 MATTER, ENERGY, AND ELECTRICITY
Q1. What is matter, and in what three states is it found?
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Anything that occupies space and has weight. Solids, liquids, gases
Q2. What is an element?
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A substance which cannot be reduced to a simpler substance by chemical means
Q3. What is a compound?
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A substance consisting of two or more elements.
Q4. What is the difference between a compound and a mixture?
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A compound is a chemical combination of elements that cannot be separated by physical means
A mixture is a physical combination of elements and compounds that are not chemically combined.
Q5. What is a molecule?
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A chemical combination of two or more atoms.
Q6. What are the three types of subatomic particles, and what are their charges?
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Electrons-negative, protons-positive, and neutrons-neutral
Q7. What is energy of motion called?
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Kinetic energy
Q8. How is invisible light changed to visible light in a fluorescent light?
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Invisible light photons (ultraviolet) bombard the phosphor atom in the light tube.
phosphor atoms emit visible light photons.
Q9. What determines the valence of an atom?
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The number of electrons in the outer shell
Q10. What is an ion?
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An atom with more or less than its normal number of electrons
Q11. What determines whether a substance is a conductor or an insulator?
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The number of valence electrons.
Q12. How is a negative charge created in a neutral body?
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Through the accumulation of excess electrons
Q13. How are static charges created?
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By friction
Q14. What is the electrical charge of an atom which contains 8 protons and 11 electrons?
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Negative
Q15. What is the relationship between charged bodies?
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Like charges repel, and unlike charges attract with a force directly proportional to the product of
their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Q16. What is an electrostatic field?
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The space between and around charged bodies
Q17. In what direction are electrostatic lines of force drawn?
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Leaving positive, entering negative
Q18. What are some examples of electrical equipment which use magnetism?
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Motors, generators, speakers, computers, televisions, tape recorders, and many others
Q19. What are magnetic materials?
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Those materials that are attracted by magnets and have the ability to become magnetized
Q20. What characteristics do all ferromagnetic materials have in common?
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The relative ease with which they are magnetized
Q21. What type of magnetic material should be used to make a temporary magnet?
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A material that exhibits low reluctance and high permeability, such as iron or soft steel.
Q22. What is retentivity?
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The ability of a material to retain magnetism.
Q23. How does the law of magnetic poles relate to the law of electric charges?
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They are very similar; like charges repel, unlike charges attract, like poles repel —unlike poles attract.
Q24. A compass is located at the geographical North Pole. In which direction would its needle point?
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To the magnetic north pole
Q25. Using Weber’s molecular theory of magnetism, describe the polarity of the magnetic polesproduced by stroking a magnetic material from right to left with the south pole of a magnet.
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South pole at the right, north pole at the left
Q26. What is the difference between the domain theory and Weber’s theory of magnetism?
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The domain theory is based upon the electron spin principle; Weber’s theory uses the concept of
tiny molecular magnets.
Q27. Refer to figure 1-13. For what purpose would you sprinkle iron filings on the glass plate?
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To enable you to "see" the magnetic field.
Q28. Refer to figure 1-13. What pattern would be formed if sawdust was sprinkled on the glass insteadof iron filings?
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No specific pattern, sawdust is a nonmagnetic material.
Q29. What is a magnetic line of force?
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An imaginary line used to illustrate magnetic effects.
Q30. In what way do magnetic lines of force differ from electrostatic lines of force?
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Electrostatic lines of force do not form closed loops.
Q31. How should a delicate instrument be protected from a magnetic field?
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By shielding or surrounding the instrument with a soft iron case, called a magnetic shield or
screen
Q32. How should bar magnets be stored?
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In pairs, with opposite poles together to provide a complete path for magnetic flux.
Q33. What is the definition of energy?
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The ability to do work
Q34. What type of energy does a rolling stone have?
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Kinetic energy.
Q35. What kind of energy does the stone have if it is at rest at the top of a hill?
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Potential energy
Q36. What term describes voltage or emf?
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Difference of potential
Q37. Convert 2.1 kV to volts
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2100 volts
Q38. Express the following in more simple terms. (a) 250,000 volts, (b) 25,000,000 microvolts, (c)0.001 millivolt.
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(a) 250 kV,
(b) 25 V,
(c) 1 9
Q39. A device which supplies a voltage is commonly referred to by what name?
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A voltage source
Q40. Name the six methods of producing a voltage.
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Friction, pressure, heat, light, chemical action, and magnetism
Q41. The piezoelectric effect is an example of a voltage being produced by what method?
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Pressure.
Q42. A thermocouple is a device that produces voltage by what method?
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Heat.
Q43. A battery uses what method to produce a voltage?
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Chemical.
Q44. A generator uses what method to produce a voltage?
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Magnetic.
Q45. According to electron theory, an electric current flows from what potential to what potential?
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Electron theory assumes that electron flow is from negative to positive
Q46. The effects of directed drift take place at what rate of speed?
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The speed of light (186,000 miles per second, 300,000,000 meters per second).
Q47. What is the relationship of current to voltage in a circuit?
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Current increases as voltage increases
Q49. What is the symbol for ohm?
Q50. When would silver be used as a conductor in preference to copper?
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When the need for conductivity is great enough to justify the additional expense.
Q51. Which wire has the least resistance? Wire A-copper, 1000 circular mils, 6 inches long. WireB-copper, 2000 circular mils, 11 inches long.
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Wire B.
Q52. Which temperature coefficient indicates a material whose resistance increases as temperatureincreases?
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Positive
Q53. What term describes a material whose resistance remains relatively constant with changes intemperature?
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Zero temperature coefficient
Q54. What is the unit of conductance and what other term is sometimes used?
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The mho (v), siemens
Q55. What is the relationship between conductance and resistance?
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They are reciprocals of each other
Q56. What is schematic symbol for a resistor?
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Q57. What does the wattage rating of a resistor indicate?
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Its ability to dissipate heat.
Q58. What are the two disadvantages of carbon-type resistors?
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Change value with age
Limited power capacity
Q59. What type resistor should be used to overcome the disadvantages of the carbon resistor?
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The wirewound resistor
Q60. Describe the differences between the rheostat connections and those of the potentiometer.
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The rheostat may have two connections, one fixed and one moveable
the potentiometer always has three connections, one moveable and two fixed.
Q61. Which type of variable resistor should you select for controlling a large amount of current?
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The rheostat
Q62. A carbon resistor has a resistance of 50 ohms, and a tolerance of 5 percent. What are the colors ofbands one, two, three, and four, respectively?
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The bands are green, black, black, and gold.
Q63. A carbon resistor has the following color bands: The first band is yellow, followed by violet,yellow, and silver. What is the ohmic value of the resistor?
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470,000 ohms
470 kilohms
Q64. The same resistor mentioned in question 63 has a yellow fifth band. What does this signify?
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The resistor’s chance of failure is 0.001 percent for 1000 hours of operation
Q65. A resistor is handed to you for identification with the following color code: the first band is blue,followed by gray, green, gold, and brown. What is the resistor’s value?
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6,800,000 ohms (6.8 megohms), with 5% tolerance, and a 1% reliability level
NEETS MODULE 1 CHAPTER 2 BATTERIES
Q1. What is the purpose of a cell?
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A cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy.
Q2. What are the three parts of a cell?
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The electrodes, the electrolyte, and the container.
Q3. What is the purpose of each of the three parts of a cell?
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The electrodes are the current conductors of the cell. The electrolyte is the solution that acts upon
the electrodes
The container holds the electrolyte and provides a means of mounting the
Q4. What are the two types of cells?
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Primary and secondary
Q5. What is the main difference between the two types of cells?
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The secondary cell can be restored to its original condition by an electric current.
The primary cell cannot.
Q6. What is electrochemical action?
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The process of converting chemical energy into electrical energy.
Q7. What is another name for the (a) positive electrode, and the (b) negative electrode?
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a) The anode,
(b) the cathode.
Q8. In the primary cell, why are negative ions attracted to the negative terminal of the cell?
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The positive charge caused by electrons leaving the negative electrode attracts the negative ions.
Q9. How do electrons get from the negative electrode to the positive electrode?
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By current flow through the load
Q10. What causes the negative electrode to be eaten away?
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The chemical action between the negative electrode and the electrolyte.
Q11. Refer to figure 2-3(B). Why is the sulfuric acid decreasing?
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The sulfuric acid is chemically acting upon the anode and cathode which creates a current flow
through the load.
Q12. Refer to figure 2-3(D). How is it possible for the sulfuric acid to be increasing?
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The charging currents causes the lead sulfate in the anode and cathode to be changed back to lead peroxide, sponge lead, and sulfuric acid.
Q13. Refer to figure 2-3(D). When all the lead sulfate has been converted, what is the condition of thecell?
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Fully charged
Q14. Describe three ways to prevent polarization.
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Vent the cell, add a material rich in oxygen, and use a material that will absorb hydrogen
Q15. Describe local action
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Current flow in a cell with no external load.
Q16. What serves as the cathode of a dry cell?
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The zinc container
Q17. Why is a dry cell called a DRY cell?
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The electrolyte is not a liquid but is in the form of a paste.
Q18. What does the term "shelf life" mean?
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The period that a cell can be stored and still be useable
Q19. Why should a mercury cell NOT be shorted?
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The danger of explosion
Q20. What factors should be considered when selecting a primary cell for a power source?
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Cost, size, ease of replacement, and voltage or current needs
Q21. What are the four basic types of secondary (wet) cells?
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Lead-acid, nickel-cadmium (NICAD), silver-zinc, and silver-cadmium.
Q22. What are the advantages of a nicad cell over a lead-acid cell?
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Can be charged in a shorter time, can deliver a larger amount of power, and stays idle longer
Q23. What type of cell is most commonly used for emergency systems?
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Silver-zinc cell.
Q24. What three cells use the same electrolyte?
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Silver-cadmium, silver-zinc, and nickel-cadmium
Q25. What does the term battery normally refer to?
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A voltage source in a single container made from one or more cells
Q26. What are the three ways of combining cells, and what is each used for?
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Series, to increase voltage but not current. Parallel, to increase current but not voltage. Series-Parallel, to increase both current and voltage.
Q27. Other than the type of cell used, what is the major difference between the construction of the lead acid and nicad battery?
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The cells in the nicad battery can be replaced.
Q28. How is the type of battery most easily determined?
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By looking at the nameplate data
Q29. What is the purpose of the hydrometer?
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To measure the amount of active ingredient in the electrolyte
Q30. Which electrolyte has more active ingredient? Electrolyte A, specific gravity 1.015? Electrolyte B,specific gravity 1.125?
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Electrolyte B. It is heavier per unit volume.
Q31. When should safety precautions pertaining to batteries be observed?
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At all times
Q32. How long should a 200 ampere-hour battery be able to deliver 5 amperes?
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Forty hours
Q33. Can a battery be recharged by adding more electrolyte?
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No, a current must be passed through the battery.
Q34. If violent gassing occurs during a battery charge, what action should be taken?
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Reduce the charging rate.
NEETS MODULE 1 CHAPTER 3 DIRECT CURRENT
Q1. In figure 3-2, what part of the circuit is the (a) load and (b) source?
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(a) DS1, the flashlight bulb
(b) BAT, the dry cell
Q2. What happens to the path for current when S1 is open as shown in figure 3-2(A)?
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The path for current is incomplete; or, there is no path for current with S1 open
Q3. What is the name given to the "picture" of a circuit such as the one shown in figure 3-2?
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A schematic diagram
Q4. According to Ohm’s law, what happens to circuit current if the applied voltage (a) increases, (b)decreases?
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(a) Current increases (b) Current decreases
Q5. According to Ohm’s law, what happens to circuit current if circuit resistance (a) increases, (b)decreases?
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(a) Current decreases (b) Current increases
Q6. What is the equation used to find circuit resistance if voltage and current values are known?
Q7. Using the graph in figure 3-7, what is the approximate value of current when the voltage is 12.5volts?
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1.25 amperes.
Q8. Using the graph in figure 3-8, what is the approximate value of current when the resistance is 3ohms?
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4 amperes.
Q9. What is the term applied to the rate at which a mechanical or electrical force causes motion?
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Power.
Q10. How can the amount of current be changed in a circuit?
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By changing the circuit resistance or the voltage of the power source.
Q11. What are the three formulas for electrical power?
Q12. What is the current in a circuit with 5 ohms of resistance that uses 180 watts of power? (refer tofigure 3-12)
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6 amperes
Q13. What type of resistor should be used in the circuit described in question 12?
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wirewound resistor.
Q14. What is the power used in a circuit that has 10 amperes of current through a 10-ohm resistor?
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1 kilowatt
Q15. How much power is converted by a 1-horsepower motor in 12 hours?
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8,952 watt hours or 8.952 kWh

Validation

Number
Is number
Q16. What is the efficiency of the motor if it actually uses 9.5 kWh in 12 hours?
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942 (rounded to 3 places
Q17. A series circuit consisting of three resistors has a current of 3 amps. If R1 = 20 ohms, R2= 60ohms, and R 3 = 80 ohms, what is the (a) total resistance and (b) source voltage of the circuit?
Q18. What is the voltage dropped by each resistor of the circuit described in question 17?
Q19. If the current was increased to 4 amps, what would be the voltage drop across each resistor in thecircuit described in question 17?
Q20. What would have to be done to the circuit described in question 17 to increase the current to 4amps?
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The source voltage would have to be increased to 640 volts
Q21. A series circuit consists of two resistors in series. R1 = 25 ohms and R2 = 30 ohms. The circuitcurrent is 6 amps. What is the (a) source voltage, (b) voltage dropped by each resistor, (c) totalpower, and (d) power used by each resistor?
Q22. When using Kirchhoff’s voltage law, how are voltage polarities assigned to the voltage dropsacross resistors?
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The point at which current enters the resistor is assigned a negative polarity and the point at which current leaves the resistor is assigned a positive polarity.
Q23. Refer to figure 3-27, if R1 was changed to a 40-ohm resistor, what would be the value of circuitcurrent (I T)?
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2 amperes.
Q24. Refer to figure 3-27. What is the effective source voltage of the circuit using the 40-ohm resistor?
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120 volts
Q25. A circuit has a source voltage of 100 volts and two 50-ohm resistors connected in series. If thereference point for this circuit is placed between the two resistors, what would be the voltage atthe reference point?
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50 volts
Q26. If the reference point in question 25 were connected to ground, what would be the voltage level ofthe reference point?
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Zero volts
Q27. What is an open circuit?
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A circuit where there is no longer a complete path for current flow
Q28. What is a short circuit?
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An accidental path of low resistance which passes an abnormally high amount of current
Q29. Why will a meter indicate more voltage at the battery terminal when the battery is out of a circuit than when the battery is in a circuit?
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The internal (source) resistance of the battery will drop some of the voltage
Q30. What condition gives maximum power transfer from the source to the load?
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When the load resistance equals the source resistance
Q31. What is the efficiency of power transfer in question 30?
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50 percent
Q32. A circuit has a source voltage of 25 volts. The source resistance is 1 ohm and the load resistanceis 49 ohms. What is the efficiency of power transfer?
Q33. What would the source voltage (ES) in figure 3-39 be if the current through R2 were 2 milliamps?
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60 volts
Q34. There is a relationship between total current and current through the individual components in acircuit. What is this relationship in a series circuit and a parallel circuit?
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Total current in a series circuit flows through every circuit component but in a parallel circuit total current divides among the available paths
Q35. In applying Kirchhoff’s current law, what does the polarity of the current indicate?
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Whether the current is entering the junction (+) or leaving the junction (-).
Q36. Four equal resistors are connected in parallel, each resistor has an ohmic value of 100 ohms,what is the equivalent resistance?
Q37. Three resistors connected in parallel have values of 12 N N DQGN :KDWLVWKHequivalent resistance?
Q38. Two resistors connected in parallel have values of 10 N DQGN :KDWLVWKHHTXLYDOHQWresistance?
Q39. What term identifies a single resistor that represents total resistance of a complex circuit?
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Equivalent resistor or Req
Q40. The total power in both series and parallel circuits is computed with the formula: PT = P1 + P2 +P3 +...Pn. Why can this formula be used for both series and parallel circuits
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In both cases all the power used in the circuit must come from the source.
Q41. A circuit consists of three resistors connected in parallel across a voltage source. Rl  52 = 53   DQG3R3 = 360 watts. Solve for RT, ES and IR2. (Hint: Draw and label the circuitfirst.)
Q42. Refer to figure 3-55(A). If the following resistors were replaced with the values indicated: R1 = 53 = lk ZKDWLVWKHWRWDOSRZHULQWKHFLUFXLW":KDWLV(R2?
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PT = 60 W, ER2 = 10 V
Q43. What is the total resistance of the circuit shown in figure 3-59? (Hint: Redraw the circuit tosimplify and then use equivalent resistances to compute for RT.)
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4 OHMS
Q44. What is the total resistance of the circuit shown in figure 3-60?
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25 OHMS
Q45. What effect does the internal resistance have on the rest of the circuit shown in figure 3-60?
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Because of the 2-volt drop across the internal resistance, only 48 volts is available for the rest of the circuit
Q46. What is the effect on total resistance and total current in a circuit if an open occurs in (a) a parallel branch, and (b) in a series portion?
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(a) Total resistance increases, total current decreases
current is equal to zero
Q47. What is the effect on total resistance and total current in a circuit if a short occurs in (a) a parallel branch, and (b) in a series portion?
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(a) Total resistance decreases, total current increases
(b) Total resistance decreases, total current increases
Q48. If one branch of a parallel network is shorted, what portion of circuit current flows through there maining branches?
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None
Q49. What information must be known to determine the component values for a voltage divider?
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The source voltage and load requirements (voltage and current).
Q50. If a voltage divider is required for a load that will use 450 mA of current, what should be the value of bleeder current?
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45 mA rule-of-thumb
Q51. If the load in question 50 requires a voltage of +90 V, what should be the value of the bleeder resistor?
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Correct answer
2 KILO OHMS
Q52. If the source voltage for the voltage divider in question 50 supplies 150 volts, what is the total current through the voltage divider?
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Correct answer
495 mA

Validation

Number
Is number
Q53. In figure 3-67, why is the value of R1 calculated first?
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R1 is the bleeder resistor. Bleeder current must be known before any of the remaining divider resistor ohmic values can be computed
Q54. In figure 3-67, how is (a) the current through R2 and (b) the voltage drop across R2 computed?
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(a) By adding the bleeder current (IR1) and the current through load 1
(b) By subtracting the voltage of load 1 from the voltage of load 2.
Q55. In figure 3-67, what is the power dissipated in R1?
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Correct answer
1.35 watts
Q56. In figure 3-67, what is the purpose of the series-parallel network R 3, R 4, and R5?
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Correct answer
The series-parallel network drops the remaining source voltage and is used to take the place of a single resistor (75 ohms) when the required ohmic value is not available in a single resisto
Q57. In figure 3-67, what should be the minimum wattage ratings of R 3 and R 5 ?
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R3 = 2 watts; R5 = 6 watts
Q58. If the load requirement consists of both positive and negative voltages, what technique is used inthe voltage divider to supply the loads from a single voltage source?
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Correct answer
The ground (reference point) is placed in the proper point in the voltage divider so that positive and negative voltages are supplied
Q59. Is it considered safe for a person to touch any energized low-voltage conductor with the barehand?
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NEVER! All energized electric circuits should be considered potentially dangerous
Q60. What should you do if you become aware of a possible malfunction in a piece of electricalequipment?
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Correct answer
You should immediately report this condition to a qualified technician
Q61. Who should perform CPR?
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Correct answer
Only trained, qualified personnel
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